Fact: A ? is not what you were raised to think
Options
Comments
-
So in that case, it's a fact that vampires and werewolfs exist. A giant green man runs around destroying buildings, army tanks, cars etc (hey, it was "scientific")
Hell, it's even a fact that aliens exist, or maybe District 9 lied? -
That is ? . There is no modern perception of virginity. Virginity is held as a standard in most of the Non western world for ages. And most of them are not Christians. I have been to Africa and the Far East and where they have come in contact with western norms you see the ? idea being stressed less, but in most civilized societies it is natural for a woman to hold her virtue until marriage. Doing otherwise is a disgrace upon the family and herself, and dig this nobody has to tell her.
You all have been so poisoned by western european degeneracy that you don't have a clue on how human beings are supposed to live in accord with nature. So you eat straight poison, you have an unnatural love for material possessions, a lack of brotherly love for your neighbor, and your children ? each other. Plus you think it is OK to plant your ? in ? filled buttocks.
Liberty is death when knowledge and nature are absent.
this bout to be a sig -
The word ? literaly means young women
so yes mary had sex
mathew ch 1
outlines yahawahshi's
or whom you call jesus's chronology from david to joseph
peace
ohh and the true jews are negroes
www.youtube.com/soundsofjacob -
LMAO u guys are funny. ? =To not bare a child lol. u ? really overdo this ?
-
sounds of jacob wrote: »the word ? literaly means young women
so yes mary had sex
mathew ch 1
outlines yahawahshi's
or whom you call jesus's chronology from david to joseph
peace
ohh and the true jews are negroes
www.youtube.com/soundsofjacob
bingo!!!!!!!!!!!! -
And Jesus had siblings anyway so of course Mary had sex before she died.
-
sounds of jacob wrote: »The word ? literaly means young women
so yes mary had sex
mathew ch 1
outlines yahawahshi's
or whom you call jesus's chronology from david to joseph
peace
ohh and the true jews are negroes
www.youtube.com/soundsofjacob
Mary had sex AFTER Jesus was born. When Michael the Archangel told Mary she would be with child she told him "But I have not KNOWN a man" and in case you think know means something other than sex look to genesis where adam and eve knew each other and got pregnant with Cane and Able. Or in the account of ? and Gamorrah where the men of the city wanted to "KNOW" the angels that were in the form of men. -
Blue Falcon stay owning everyone here
-
blue falcon wrote: »So name a few cultures and socities that didn't love material posessions, that didn't engage in wars. Africans most certianly engaged in tribal wars as well as people from the far east. So who exactly could you be refering to.
First of all I said unnatural love of material possessions. Nothing wrong with material possesions. And I didn't mention wars. Quit putting words in my mouth.
I have seen your "Christian" discourse. You really tell it like it ain't. Getting in a debate with you would be like arguing with a chopped off ? tip. I don't argue with ? . -
welll...when you look at the word "? "in Hebrew it would be "bthuwlah" which by definition means... feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a ? (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state:--maid, ? ...Doesnt say anything about not having sex.
when you look at the word in Greek it would be "parthenos" which by definition means...of unknown origin; a maiden; by implication, an unmarried daughter:--? ...Doesnt say anything about not having sex. A ? is an unmarried women as suggested by these definitions. They both mention "maid" or "maiden" which means an unmarried woman. Now when you read this...
Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
To be espoused means give an engagement present or promise to marry married. Again, we are going to look at the Greek word since the new testament is Greek. The word in Greek is "mnesteuo" which by definition means to give a souvenir (engagement present), i.e. betroth:--espouse, the word "betroth(to promise to marry)" being the key here. It also says before they came together which means before they were married.
19Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily.
Now when you read that line it says Joseph is her husband so, lets define husband in Greek. The word in Greek is "aner" which by definition means, a primary word ; a man (properly as an individual male):--fellow, husband, man, sir. The word husband according to the Greek word did not mean that they were married, also it would only contradict what was already said above about them being "espoused" . Now mind you, in first line I posted it says she was found with the child of the Holy Ghost. So all this is taking place before they are married. The next line says "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily." Joseph doesnt want to make her a public example of what? and he wants to put her away privily? She was already pregnant before she was married and he wanted to keep it private in other words. Now this next line says "Behold, a ? shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, ? with us." The line I already mentioned told you she was already pregnant but she was not married, hence she was a ? . "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." Now it says he took unto him his wife and "knew" her not until she had brought forth her son, or in other words,he didnt marry her until she had her first son.
By definition the word knew, know and known doesnt suggest sex in every use of the word, sometimes it is implied because when people marry they have sex. -
bless the child wrote: »welll...when you look at the word "? "in Hebrew it would be "bthuwlah" which by definition means... feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a ? (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state:--maid, ? ...Doesnt say anything about not having sex.
when you look at the word in Greek it would be "parthenos" which by definition means...of unknown origin; a maiden; by implication, an unmarried daughter:--? ...Doesnt say anything about not having sex. A ? is an unmarried women as suggested by these definitions. They both mention "maid" or "maiden" which means an unmarried woman. Now when you read this...
Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
To be espoused means give an engagement present or promise to marry married. Again, we are going to look at the Greek word since the new testament is Greek. The word in Greek is "mnesteuo" which by definition means to give a souvenir (engagement present), i.e. betroth:--espouse, the word "betroth(to promise to marry)" being the key here. It also says before they came together which means before they were married.
19Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily.
Now when you read that line it says Joseph is her husband so, lets define husband in Greek. The word in Greek is "aner" which by definition means, a primary word ; a man (properly as an individual male):--fellow, husband, man, sir. The word husband according to the Greek word did not mean that they were married, also it would only contradict what was already said above about them being "espoused" . Now mind you, in first line I posted it says she was found with the child of the Holy Ghost. So all this is taking place before they are married. The next line says "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privily." Joseph doesnt want to make her a public example of what? and he wants to put her away privily? She was already pregnant before she was married and he wanted to keep it private in other words. Now this next line says "Behold, a ? shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, ? with us." The line I already mentioned told you she was already pregnant but she was not married, hence she was a ? . "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." Now it says he took unto him his wife and "knew" her not until she had brought forth her son, or in other words,he didnt marry her until she had her first son.
By definition the word knew, know and known doesnt not suggest sex, it is implied because when people marry they have sex.
!!! FIRE
TRUE INDEED
the word for ? in the torah is
young women which is SYNONYMYS with the term ? THE hebrew word is aylaama pronounced
(ilaama) AND IT means maiden OR WHAT WE NO TODAY AS YOUNG WOMEN
@ BLUE FALCON READ
MATHEW CH 1
2timothy 2:8 revelation 22 :16 Romans1:3
PEACE
THE 12 TRIBES OF ISRAEL
JUDAH- American Blacks
BENJAMIN- West Indian Blacks
LEVI- Haitians
SIMEON- Dominicans
ZEBULON- Black Indians Guatemala to Panama(Mayans)
EPHRAIM- Puerto Ricans
MANASSEH- Cubans
GAD- Native-American Indians
REUBEN- Seminole Indians
ASHER- Columbia to Uruguay (Incas)
ISSACHAR- Mexicans (Aztecs)
NAPTHALI- Argentina/Chile
100% proof !!!
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eFyPTBkYWAw -
SoulRattler of Venom wrote: »And Jesus had siblings anyway so of course Mary had sex before she died.
Thoze were hiz "STEP" Brothaz/Sistaz, just like if U have step brothaz/sistaz u'd call them "my brotha/sista" doezn't mean there your "biological" brothaz/sistaz!
U LOST CLOZE THREAD!! -
sounds of jacob wrote: »The word ? literaly means young women
so yes mary had sex
mathew ch 1
outlines yahawahshi's
or whom you call jesus's chronology from david to joseph
peace
ohh and the true jews are negroes
www.youtube.com/soundsofjacob
Y doez the "Septuagint" contradict the 1611/1630 KJV Bible bout the 12 Tribez? -
I am stunned at the logic people attempt to use over simple semantics.
"bthuwlah" - Googling this gets this defintion "Feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a ? (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state .... maid, ? ."
It mentions ? twice!!!
"parthenos" - Googling this gets ... http://strongsnumbers.com/greek/3933.htm on which the quote provide occurs as well as the word ? 7 TIMES!!!
? definition .... "A person who has not experienced sexual intercourse." also "A chaste or unmarried woman; a maiden."
Chaste - 1. Morally pure in thought or conduct; decent and modest.
2.
a. Not having experienced sexual intercourse; virginal.
b. Abstaining from unlawful sexual intercourse.
c. Abstaining from all sexual intercourse; celibate.
3. Pure or simple in design or style; austere."
The word ? today means someone with out sexual experience. It come from the Latin Virgos which mean sexually inexperienced women. You can not cite definition that use the term ? and then claim the damn word does not mean ? . For ? sake!! -
Wow.............people will find just about anyhting to Argue about lol
-
I am stunned at the logic people attempt to use over simple semantics.
"bthuwlah" - Googling this gets this defintion "Feminine passive participle of an unused root meaning to separate; a ? (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride; also (figuratively) a city or state .... maid, ? ."
It mentions ? twice!!!
"parthenos" - Googling this gets ... http://strongsnumbers.com/greek/3933.htm on which the quote provide occurs as well as the word ? 7 TIMES!!!
? definition .... "A person who has not experienced sexual intercourse." also "A chaste or unmarried woman; a maiden."
Chaste - 1. Morally pure in thought or conduct; decent and modest.
2.
a. Not having experienced sexual intercourse; virginal.
b. Abstaining from unlawful sexual intercourse.
c. Abstaining from all sexual intercourse; celibate.
3. Pure or simple in design or style; austere."
The word ? today means someone with out sexual experience. It come from the Latin Virgos which mean sexually inexperienced women. You can not cite definition that use the term ? and then claim the damn word does not mean ? . For ? sake!!
How are you going to try and use the word "virgo/? "when both Greek and Hebrew languages are older than Latin?????? How can these people be writing in a script and using words from that script if it doesnt even exist yet? In the English Bible the word they use is "? " but in the Hebrew text and Greek text they do NOT use the word ? , they use the words I mentioned which does not mean ? ! How can it mean ? if the word didnt even exist at the time they were written? When you make the parallels between Greek and Hebrew they both deal with a bride or unmarried woman in some shape or from. The reason why they say ? is because they're giving you an english translation which has nothing to do with what it actually says in Greek or Hebrew. Like I said, how can they be using the word "virgo" or even have that as their root if Latin doesnt even exist yet??!!? -
then why is this thread about how the use of the word "? " is incorrectbless the child wrote: »but in the Hebrew text and Greek text they do NOT use the word ? , they use the words I mentioned which does not mean ? ! -
ask the thread starter...I dont think the thread starter was talking about the word "? "exactly. He was talking about the meaning of that word itself as it relates to the text.then why is this thread about how the use of the word "? " is incorrect -
So this is what goes on in here... leaving
-
seems like that would be more about the replacing of a word than the redefining of a wordbless the child wrote: »...I dont think the thread starter was talking about the word "? "exactly. He was talking about the meaning of that word itself as it relates to the text. -
bless the child wrote: »How are you going to try and use the word "virgo/? "when both Greek and Hebrew languages are older than Latin?????? How can these people be writing in a script and using words from that script if it doesnt even exist yet? In the English Bible the word they use is "? " but in the Hebrew text and Greek text they do NOT use the word ? , they use the words I mentioned which does not mean ? ! How can it mean ? if the word didnt even exist at the time they were written? When you make the parallels between Greek and Hebrew they both deal with a bride or unmarried woman in some shape or from. The reason why they say ? is because they're giving you an english translation which has nothing to do with what it actually says in Greek or Hebrew. Like I said, how can they be using the word "virgo" or even have that as their root if Latin doesnt even exist yet??!!?
I have to explain how definitions work!?!?!
Ok they list a word then describe what that word means.
So when they say the definition of the hebrew word is ? then it means ? . The fact that hebrew is older is immaterial. The word meant ? then and now translated to english means ? . Its not like there were no virgins running around before we invited the word. -
bless the child wrote: »ask the thread starter...I dont think the thread starter was talking about the word "? "exactly. He was talking about the meaning of that word itself as it relates to the text.
You are correct sir. As it relates to the text, "? " does not properly identify with what Mary actually was. -
I agree 100%, good thread.
I see after all this time off you still just randomly believe whatever people tell you....long as it contradicts the Status QuoSoulRattler of Venom wrote: »You are correct sir. As it relates to the text, "? " does not properly identify with what Mary actually was.
Soul.... are you serious?....
and bless why are you co-signing this obviously under researched topic.... this one is not salvageable
