Can a Woman.....
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Maximus Rex
Members Posts: 6,354 ✭✭✭✭✭
in AKA Donkey
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Yes.
However, at that point it ceases to be ? . -
So the answer is "No". -
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Maximus Rex wrote: »achieve an orgasm when she's being ? ?
Are you mentally ? ? -
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Maximus Rex wrote: »achieve an orgasm when she's being ? ?
you must be a REPUBLICAN....smh -
The Jackal wrote: »Maximus Rex wrote: »achieve an orgasm when she's being ? ?
Are you mentally ? ?
No, I'm dead ass serious. I asked this question in the law library at school, every in the law library literally stopped at what they were doing, tripped off what they just heard, wondered if they did actually heard it, to which I had to ask the question again.
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Who begot you should undo what they beget in this realm and send you back in the netherworld to never once again have physical third dimensional form again! ? Begone degenerate one!
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I only read the "can a woman" part and i thought "No"
didnt read -
Gold_Certificate wrote: »Yes.
However, at that point it ceases to be ? .
Forgot post after reading above post...
Ether...the ? that will make your soul burn slow
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In all seriousness tho, has anybody ever heard of a case where a woman was ? by another woman (outside of prison)?
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You know when I read your post I thought Pinky...she would destroy some damn broad
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what if the question was can a woman get me a damn sandwichI only read the "can a woman" part and i thought "No"
didnt read -
You know when I read your post I thought Pinky...she would destroy some damn broad
LOL!! Man hell yeah! That hefa show NO mercy on them broads.
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earth two superman wrote: »
Of course it would be "Yes'. but i have to give her permission first. -
if you knew what an orgasm was...what happend to a woman during an orgasm and how she achieves one then u would know the answer is no....?
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http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20090323214325AAAbJCh
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Why do women really orgasm during ? ?
I have read a number of articles written by PhD's, first-hand accounts of women who've been ? , and comments on various forums like this one at Yahoo! Answers. They all seem to state that women who achieve orgasm during ? do so because a) the bodies reaction to fear is so intense that it escalates their orgasm response or b) the ? is able to, either because of his being in a secure environment where he has the time or because he simply is able to "last", make the female orgasm because the act lasts long enough to cause the females body to exhibit the natural "physiological response to the stimulation of a females erogenous zones".
I find this to be a bit hard to believe seeing as almost all of the women whose ? was able to continue the act for an extended period of time was able to make the woman achieve orgasm. This is no different than a woman who can't have an orgasm during sex with their partner; a longer sexual session heightens the possibility of the female achieving orgasm.
If you take only the statistics of women who have had a ? that lasted a lengthy amount of time, those women's rate of orgasm would be very high than if you lumped all ? occurrences together where the ? lasted only a short time.
I only bring this up because I have never met a woman who hasn't had a ? fantasy (and I understand that their are those who feel there is a difference between fantasy and reality, i.e. the female is in control of her fantasy, but she has no control during ? although I personally feel, and have many female friends who admit that if the ? was a very attractive man that they would not only submit to his ? but would most likely orgasm because of his assertiveness and their feeling of being desired to the point of ? ). Women want and desire a somewhat sophisticated (although that is a luxury) caveman who will simply drag them off by their hair and have their way with them, especially if this caveman resembles the men they fantasize about and read about in their romance novels or that they see onscreen or onstage.
So, do women really only orgasm during ? because it is an accidental response to stimulus that they are unable to control or do women inherently have some part of their biology that responds sexually to the extreme sexual advances of a domineering male, who in turn makes them feel, in some strange way, the object of his unquenchable desire.
4 years ago
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Here is a source I found on the fly. I have an M.A. and am working towards a PhD at the moment. I am not simply throwing out wild opinions with no basis in reality here. My mother was ? as was my youngest sister. I empathize with ? victims; I do not, however, look beyond rational thought brought on by certain evidence that proves that women, on some level, inherently desire this type of attention from the male population. For every caveman there is also a cavewoman.
Source: http://calor.hit.bg/lib/Sexual arousal…
4 years ago
By the way, if you're looking for recent academic study on this subject you'll have to get off google and yahoo and put those academic databases you're all paying your respective universities so much money to use to good use. You will find plenty of information there you won't be able to find by searching the web, seeing as when you search ? and orgasm together you get a number of niche porn sites in which I am sure no one here has any interest in viewing.
4 years ago
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ColleenI...
Best Answer - Chosen by Voters
This is a topic that I have discussed a great deal in the past with counselors, ? victims and even here on Yahoo Answers and in other online forums. I have read a great deal on ? and I had seen the article you cited in the past while researching the topic too. The reason I had invested so much time on it is because I was a victim of a ? about 4 1/2 years ago by a stranger when I was 18 and have struggled to find answers to the question you've posed as well as others. It is usually thought of as not being PC or polite and people start getting very defensive about it. Well, exploring and trying to find out the truth is not helped by closing one's eyes to things we rather not believe.
I think that the answer to the question as to why do some females orgasm during a sexual assault or ? is that all of the various explanations have some validity, but none of them tell the entire story in the case of every individual victim of the crime.
First of all, orgasms in women being ? are not frequent, but they are not uncommon either. In the study you cite, about 5% to 21% of women interviewed in the studies surveyed reported having an orgasm when they were ? . Researchers have hypothesized that the actual figure is probably a bit higher in reality due to victims being understandably embarrassed both by the ? and by having achieved an orgasm during unwanted, forced sexual relations. Around 20% seems to be a likely, real-word figure.
Why would almost 1 in 5 women have an orgasm during the ? ? Conditions probably have to be right. What you mentioned about long enough stimulation of the erogenous zones is probably often correct, because most women unless highly aroused prior to ? don't orgasm quickly during the act and the man is likely to finish before she has had a chance to have an orgasm. So it is likely that in some case the ? engaged in various kinds of foreplay during the assault. But, at least 20% of women like me have a highly sensitive ? and achieve orgasm during intercourse very frequently and fairly easily at times. That might explain why some women might orgasm even during a short violent ? . In fact in one study even several women who were beaten up during the ? still had orgasms just from intercourse. I would think that they also had to be women with an active ? .
It also might be that physiological and adrenaline response that you see often referred to in some articles too. But other researchers question whether a woman can really have an orgasm unless at some point she wants the orgasm to take place in some part of her mind at least. They say that women just cannot have an orgasm unless she concentrates on it a bit. If this is true, is it because of our biological heritage from cave man times like you wonder? Perhaps it is for some women at least. Although we now live in civil society (at least in the developed world) humans were hunter/gatherers and cave dwellers for a far longer part of our history than they have been civilized. Our thousands of years long history as cave dwellers and hunters can't be erased in our genes and predispositions after only about 5000 years of civilization. Some women probably do at some unconscious level respond to a man taking control of her physically and having sex with her by dominating her physically even to the point of responding in the extreme case like during a ? . Many women engage in play with their bf's or husbands which are like a play or role played ? in some manner, so it obviously again something that just turns some women on.
Altogether, it is just a fact that some of us will orgasm during a ? . The explanation is complex, but the bottom line is that whether or not a woman orgasms, if she is ? it is an experience that will haunt her unless she receives support, counseling and understanding in order to deal with the complex and deep emotions caused by the experience.
Source(s):
http://calor.hit.bg/lib/Sexual arousal… -
Aquafina..floe wrote: »if you knew what an orgasm was...what happend to a woman during an orgasm and how she achieves one then u would know the answer is no....?
^^^Not a real woman.. cant give birth at all.
Failed as a woman.. succeeded as a gorilla ? -
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Last time I posted aqua's daughter, I became mod
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lmfao
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http://www.thenation.com/blog/169474/how-body-reacts-sexual-assault#
How the Body Reacts to Sexual Assault
Dana Goldstein on August 20, 2012 - 5:08 PM ET
Embattled US Senate candidate Todd Akin claimed yesterday that “legitimate ? ” somehow turns off the female body’s reproductive capabilities. As I demonstrate below, that is absurd. But it is important to note that Akin’s ideology is part of a broader set of misconceptions about how the body reacts to sexual assault.
There’s nothing new about the idea that vaginal lubrication, orgasm and pregnancy can occur only after a wanted sexual encounter. None of this is true. A 2004 paper from the Journal of Clinical Forensic Medicine addresses some of these misconceptions. The authors, Roy Levin and ? van Berlo, considered reports from doctors, nurses and therapists who work with ? survivors. Many of the clinicians had experienced distraught victims’ asking why they felt lubrication or even orgasm during ? .
One British nurse-therapist reported the following:
“Approximately 1 in 20 women who come to the clinic for treatment because of sexual abuse report that they have had an orgasm from previous unsolicited sexual arousal. It is not detailed in the [professional] literature because the victims usually do not want to tell/talk about it because they feel guilty, as people will think that if it happened they must have enjoyed it. The victims often say, ‘My body let me down.’ Some, however, cannot summon the courage to say even that.”
Heartbreaking. Levin and van Berlo found that victims report evidence of physical arousal in as many as 21 percent of ? cases, even when they also report violence and high levels of fear and mental distress. Why? The researchers note that many rapes are comitted by acquaintances or romantic partners of the victims; initial familiarity or even attraction might be supplanted by terror as an encounter becomes coercive. This is relevant, I think, to the charges against Julian Assange, who is accused of sexual assault for refusing to wear a condom with female partners who had earlier consented to sex. If that occured, it is still ? : physical force was used to violate the initial, consensual terms of the encounter.
Then there is the simple fact, obvious to most women, that the ? can become lubricated during sex as a defense mechanism against tearing and pain, regardless of one’s level of enthusiasm or emotional buy-in.
And it isn’t just women who can experience these confusing sensations. In men, Levin and van Berlo actually found some links between “anxiety-inducing threats” and increased blood flood flow to the ? .
All of this is really hard to write and talk about it, because it exists in the murky area between what we desire and what we fear. Yes, force can provoke arousal, but that doesn’t condone the non-consensualuse of force. The authors conclude:
“A perpertrator’s defence against the alleged assault built solely on the evidence that genital arousal or orgasm in the victim proves consent has no intrinsic validity and should be disregarded.”
One of the many problems with Romney/Ryan-like ? exceptions to broad abortion bans is that they encourage anti-choicers to draw a thousand false distinctions between worthy and less worthy ? victims, which is what Akin was really attempting to do. What he cares about is saving as many fetuses as possible, regardless of what calamity befell the women forced to bear them. For example, if you were ? by an ex-husband or ex-boyfriend, is your fetus as unwanted as that of a woman ? by a stranger? If you were ? by a man with whom you were drinking, do you deserve that free pass abortion? Non-consensual sex is non-consensual sex. It exerts unwanted control over a woman’s body—as does forced pregnancy
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Aquafina..floe wrote: »if you knew what an orgasm was...what happend to a woman during an orgasm and how she achieves one then u would know the answer is no....?
Did you achieve an orgasm when you were having one of your many abortions?
