An insensitive question about racial slurs

LUClEN
LUClEN Members Posts: 20,559 ✭✭✭✭✭
a lot of people on here think that the slur '? ' is more offensive than '? ', '? ', '? ', 'cracka', 'chug', or '? '.

My question is this: why?

In my opinion all terms are meant to infer that the receiver of said term is inferior to the speaker. Now my view is that the term '? ' simply implies that the receiver of the slur is a part of the lowest group on the social hierarchy, if only it is accepted that the term is more offensive than all other racial slurs.

So I kind of have a question: can it be shown that the term is still more offensive than other slurs without the term falsly implying that those of African descent are the lowest on the social hierarchy?

Comments

  • Bodhi
    Bodhi Members Posts: 7,932 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited July 2013
    "? " is more offensive than any other simply because of the history behind it.. worldwide. But America more specifically: slavery, social rejection, legal injustice, etc.. Not to say that the word implies that blacks are on the very bottom necessarily based on the fact that it's more offensive (the word came before any reaction to it -- your theory would mean that the reaction came before the word which isn't logical); rather, it's more offensive because of the impact of that racist mentality in america. The word "? " just embodies it.
  • LUClEN
    LUClEN Members Posts: 20,559 ✭✭✭✭✭
    Well my counter to such a reaction is this:

    If being a '? ' is better than being a '? ' than how is more offensive?

    I would presume that the state of being a '? ' is what makes it more offensive which is a slavery vs low paid labour argument.
  • Bodhi
    Bodhi Members Posts: 7,932 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited July 2013
    Being one is not worse or better than the other. No racial slur is less or more hateful IMO since they're all essentially derogatory. What I said was that the history behind the word "? " makes it more offensive but that doesn't mean being black is worse than being Hispanic. ? =/= slave and ? =/= low paid laborer. They are both terms used to denote that the person or people it is used against are inferior in some way.. and nothing more than that. Yet, the mentality that blacks are inferior has had a bigger impact on America and the entire world than the same for Hispanics. Thus, the word "? " seems/is more offensive
  • zombie
    zombie Members Posts: 13,450 ✭✭✭✭✭
    To white people a ? was considered the lowest form of human life, and some did not consider ? to even be human that is why the word ? is worse. ? = animal

    and that is why it is worse
  • WYRM
    WYRM Members Posts: 993 ✭✭✭✭
    ? and ? have the most racist feel and both people have gone through some hellish history, slavery and death camps, everyone else needs to laugh that ? off like a ? would.