WHY is ? CONSIDERED A "HE" AND NOT AN "IT" or "THING"

DRO
DRO Members Posts: 9,943 ✭✭✭
edited December 2011 in R & R (Religion and Race)
SERIOUSLY,

? is a spirit.. even the bible says so... He wasnt once and human and then turned in to a spirit, he was one all along.

? does'nt have genitailia, he has no need for a ? , ? , sack, ? , etc...And those things are what separate men from women..

So why is ? considered a male?

Comments

  • PPLSIntiative
    PPLSIntiative Members Posts: 222
    edited December 2011
    It's because like the title ? , Father has a meaning as well. Father in biblical terms means the begotter or the starter of something. Much like a man is a starter of life when he impregnates a woman. ? started the ball rolling so the term Father applies.
  • DRO
    DRO Members Posts: 9,943 ✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    It's because like the title ? , Father has a meaning as well. Father in biblical terms means the begotter or the starter of something. Much like a man is a starter of life when he impregnates a woman. ? started the ball rolling so the term Father applies.

    Good point.. i thought that also.. but then i thought "well the women is the one that actually begats life, not a man"
  • DRO
    DRO Members Posts: 9,943 ✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    kai_valya wrote: »
    because the constraints of language force us to use pronouns. it would sound really redundant if you said ? every time. i don't think saying he instead of ? mean that you actually think ? is a male

    Well in the case in point in what u stated, it would be ok to say "she" then huh?
  • Bodhi
    Bodhi Members Posts: 7,932 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    maybe a patriarchal society?

    Also, a lot of feminine and masculine principles of the ancients were represented as female and male gods. It's a long story, but ? is supposed to be male and nature itself is female. That's why you have "mother" nature. Of course, the "father" ? is not actually a spirit with feelings and ? , obviously, neither is nature
  • damnkp
    damnkp Members Posts: 1,824 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    ? created man in his image. Adam was first.
    Jesus was born from a woman and is the son of ? .
  • beenwize
    beenwize Members Posts: 2,024 ✭✭
    edited December 2011
    SERIOUSLY,

    ? is a spirit.. even the bible says so... He wasnt once and human and then turned in to a spirit, he was one all along.

    ? does'nt have genitailia, he has no need for a ? , ? , sack, ? , etc...And those things are what separate men from women..

    So why is ? considered a male?

    Who was in the mountain with Moses with hands, face, and back parts? Who is the one sitting with hair like wool?


    Exodus 33:22
    And it shall come to pass, while my glory passeth by, that I will put thee in a clift of the rock, and will cover thee with my hand while I pass by:

    And I will take away mine hand, and thou shalt see my back parts: but my face shall not be seen.

    Daniel 7:9
    I beheld till the thrones were cast down, and the Ancient of days did sit, whose garment was white as snow, and the hair of his head like the pure wool: his throne was like the fiery flame, and his wheels as burning fire.

    Deuteronomy 5:24
    And ye said, Behold, the LORD our ? hath shewed us his glory and his greatness, and we have heard his voice out of the midst of the fire: we have seen this day that ? doth talk with man, and he liveth.
  • VIBE
    VIBE Members Posts: 54,384 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    Because men wrote the bible.

    Man was created first.
    A Man was chosen as being "righteous".
    Men were the 12 disciples.
    Jesus is the son, chosen/anointed one (man)
    ? male sex is forbidden, lesbian sex isn't.
    Everything is men oriented in the bible, therefore ? is a "he, him".

    Look at what women couldn't do. They were dirt.

    Ask anyone, they'll definitely tell you ? is a male for sure.
  • DRO
    DRO Members Posts: 9,943 ✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    vibe86 wrote: »
    because men wrote the bible.

    Man was created first.
    A man was chosen as being "righteous".
    Men were the 12 disciples.
    Jesus is the son, chosen/anointed one (man)
    ? male sex is forbidden, lesbian sex isn't.
    Everything is men oriented in the bible, therefore ? is a "he, him".

    Look at what women couldn't do. They were dirt.

    Ask anyone, they'll definitely tell you ? is a male for sure.

    they can only imply that he was a man..

    I guess my sense of "man" is different from the "man" ? is....
  • PPLSIntiative
    PPLSIntiative Members Posts: 222
    edited December 2011
    Good point.. i thought that also.. but then i thought "well the women is the one that actually begats life, not a man"

    Not really. A woman cannot impregnate herself. She carries eggs but they only begin to form life when sperm is introduced. There a man must start the process, a begotter. The truth in the explanation lies in its simplicity.
  • fiat_money
    fiat_money Members Posts: 16,654 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    Just an example of humans personifying things.

    Also an example of Christianity's speciesism.
  • Rock_Well
    Rock_Well Members Posts: 2,185 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    I believe it has to do with the assumed role ? has in dealing with His creation. His role towards us moreso matches that of a Father figure than that of a Mother. And ? - not man - is the one who decided to refer to Himself in masculine terms. That must be respected. It has nothing to do with being a male or female though. You right, male and female doesn't apply to spiritual beings. And I'm pretty sure in both Hebrew and English language the proper gender to use when the gender is neutral is male anyway.
  • DRO
    DRO Members Posts: 9,943 ✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    vibe86 wrote: »
    because men wrote the bible.

    Man was created first.
    A man was chosen as being "righteous".
    Men were the 12 disciples.
    Jesus is the son, chosen/anointed one (man)
    ? male sex is forbidden, lesbian sex isn't.
    Everything is men oriented in the bible, therefore ? is a "he, him".

    Look at what women couldn't do. They were dirt.

    Ask anyone, they'll definitely tell you ? is a male for sure.
    lesbian sex isn't forbidden?

    dam.. Im glad u caught that...

    Explain yourself vibe....
  • VIBE
    VIBE Members Posts: 54,384 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    The bible only speaks on "if a MAN lay w another MAN.." never specifies "woman".
  • judahxulu
    judahxulu Members Posts: 3,988 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    in hebrew thought, man and woman are different parts of the same entity and referred to as "he" as in "male and female created he them, male and female created he him". also the presence of YHWH in hebrew is shekinah, which is a feminine noun.
  • judahxulu
    judahxulu Members Posts: 3,988 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    I believe it has to do with the assumed role ? has in dealing with His creation. His role towards us moreso matches that of a Father figure than that of a Mother. And ? - not man - is the one who decided to refer to Himself in masculine terms. That must be respected. It has nothing to do with being a male or female though. You right, male and female doesn't apply to spiritual beings. And I'm pretty sure in both Hebrew and English language the proper gender to use when the gender is neutral is male anyway.

    youre right about the bolded. did u study that or just have a hunch?
  • Rock_Well
    Rock_Well Members Posts: 2,185 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited December 2011
    judahxulu wrote: »
    youre right about the bolded. did u study that or just have a hunch?
    that's wassup. but nah actually haven't studied it myself; i think i remember reading that somewhere from a fairly reliable source. i figure it was true cuz i do know from mild studies Hebrew to be simpler than English in key ways