All Conspiracy Theorists are bound for Hell
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solid analysis wrote: »
a person with the faith of demons...they believe but have no works.That makes no sense. If one truly believes in gods word, then one would FOLLOW gods word. How can one truly believe yet just cherry pick some laws to follow and completely ignore the other laws? What about priests who cut their hair and beards? Has it not been said that they shouldn't?
who in their right mind would go to the Old Testament to bind law where the New Testament law DOESN'T bind it? This only demonstrate your lack of knowledge on Biblical doctrine. The OT does not offer a means of salvation..following OT instead of the law of Christ is spiritual suicide.
I'll have to call your hand on that one...you obviously misunderstood something. The Bible is against racism, we have Biblical examples of ? striking someone with leprosy because of a similar sin as racism.What about mating two different animals? It says NOT to do this. (racist btw).
You referring to OT law. If you personally choose to follow OT law that's you, but you have no right to bind it upon followers of Christ.What about those who plant their fields with two different kinds of seeds? They're not supposed to do this either. Eating ? meats, wearing two different kinds of woven materials are also a no-no. Why do you think no one follows them?
Where does the Bible say to pray to understand the written word? Pauls says when we READ we can come to the wisdom of ? . Some areas are harder to understand than others, yes. Other areas, like Revelation, if you not Christian, you just won't be able to understand.Also, I've always found "understanding gods word" a bit silly. Why does one need to "pray" to understand something they've read? Reading comprehension isn't so hard, even atheists who debate can do this without "praying" and they ether the ? out of pastors who have been "praying for understanding" for years.
Now you stepping on my toes...I'm going to straighten a few things out when I get back home and put my baby down for a nap...
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Nice going VIBE.
I'll have to wait till later to respond -
solid analysis wrote: »Nice going VIBE.
I'll have to wait till later to respond
we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV -
solid analysis wrote: »Nice going VIBE.
I'll have to wait till later to respond
we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV
Lol
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solid analysis wrote: »
No, the Father and Son are two different beings. They are still both ? , as far as authority goes even though the Father has more authority.So are you saying Jesus and Yahweh are the SAME entity? You would have to say that because throughout the Old Testament they did not recognize or teach of two entities being ? .
1 Chronicles 17:20
O LORD, there is none like thee, neither is there any ? beside thee, according to all that we have heard with our ears.
1 Samuel 2:2
There is none holy as the LORD: for there is none beside thee: neither is there any rock like our ? .
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dude the Old Testament does not recognize two different beings as ? ..
This is Yahweh speaking in the Old Testament.
Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.
Isaiah 44:8 Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are my witnesses. Is there any ? besides me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one."
Isaiah 45:5 I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no ? beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:
That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the LORD, and there is none else.
^^ Now if Yahweh is speaking in those scriptures and he has a son named Jesus as you claim then why is he not recogizing him as a ? and a savior?
If Yahweh who you call Father is saying there is no ? nor savior with him then why do you not understand this? What would be the point of constantly saying no savior is beside me if you still saying there are 2 gods who are a Father and Son?
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This was the plan all along, OT prophecies bear witness to that. The OT was more of an introductory law to ? 's real, permanent law and solution to be offered later. And all i'm gonna give is a hint: "I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brothers, like to you, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him." (Deuteronomy 18:18) <----this is about Jesus, the fulfillment of the Law and Testator of the New Testament.Why is the Old Testaments laws change? Aren't the 10 Commandments apart of the Old Testament? They seem to have weeded out (changed) to only be left with 10. How come? Sure you'll say "Jesus died for our sins" type of stuff, and I realize that it's cool they do away with the "sacrifices for sin" thing. Why were the other things changed?Quote? I've heard though, this leprosy was basically a skin turning white type of thing, even seen scripture provided proving this. I forget the exact passages though, but considering that, isn't that racism in itself? Cursing someone to be different, white instead of dark?
"And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Cushite woman whom he had married; for he had married a Cushite woman." (Numbers 12:1) Moses married a Cushite woman (black)
"And the cloud departed from off the tabernacle; and, behold, Miriam became leprous, white as snow: and Aaron looked on Miriam, and, behold, she was leprous. And Aaron said to Moses, Alas, my lord, I beseech you, lay not the sin on us, wherein we have done foolishly, and wherein we have sinned. Let her not be as one dead, of whom the flesh is half consumed when he comes out of his mother's ? ." (Numbers 12:10-12)
Notice the above underlined - leprosy does more than just turn the skin white, it rots the flesh away. one of the worse diseases you could catch in those times.
You don't need special or some kind of direct divine intervention to understand the Bible. The Bible is sensible and filled with plenty of common sense. There are however also plenty things in the Word that take a higher type of wisdom to really understand. Which basically mean you have to put away your own understanding and learn to lean on what the text says because hidden within the text is ? 's wisdom.Where does the Bible say to pray to understand the written word? Pauls says when we READ we can come to the wisdom of ? . Some areas are harder to understand than others, yes. Other areas, like Revelation, if you not Christian, you just won't be able to understand.
Where did I say the bible said that? I say that because all Christians state this, "OH! You're an atheist, you need to read the bible in context and pray for wisdom and understanding". It seems that without some magical wisdom and understanding, you won't understand the bible. Why is that? Whether it's prayed for or brought to you by ? through reading, why? Reading is reading, comprehending is comprehending. If you do not understand a book like I do, besides the bible, do I say you need wisdom and understanding from Mark Twain? I think that's a cheesy cop-out in saying, "Well, I don't have a good rebuttal, so instead, you don't understand the bible!". It doesn't take some magical understanding man.
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lol ? is goodsolid analysis wrote: »Nice going VIBE.
I'll have to wait till later to respond
we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV
but true, salvation is mentioned in OT. though what i'm saying is kind of hard to break down cuz i know it probably sound like i'm saying no one in the OT era got saved. No, plenty ppl from the OT era received salvation but the salvation they received was made possibly by Christ sacrifice. The people of OT ear didn't have the "Christ with us." They looked forward to His coming, and trusted and had faith that He would save them though. Not sure if that makes sense but basically - how many verses in the OT contain commands or verse that call the believer to wash away sins (saved themselves)? example: "Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to ? for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (1 Peter 3:21)
See in this era, salvation is here. We can save ourselves the moment we obey the gospel. We still must have a working faith, but baptism washes away sins. baptism is a test of a person faith and it is at that point which we received forgiveness of sins after having believed and repented. -
watch out now...the simple fact that salvation is mentioned implies that there is a condemnation mention in the OT as well and Beenwize just can't take thatsolid analysis wrote: »Nice going VIBE.
I'll have to wait till later to respond
we cool so im not gonna get all aggro witcha but um...you should look at this on the wise of the OT offering salvation http://www.blueletterbible.org/search/translationResults.cfm?criteria=salvation+LORD&sstr=0&t=KJV
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Jesus came to fulfill but not to abolish ANY of gods laws.
Jesus showed he could perfect them.
Jesus only took away the consequences of not following the law; sacrifices/stoning.
Law still stands. -
keep in mind the 'Father' and 'Son' are titles many the same of which apply to both the Son and Father. 'Father' and 'Son' titles mainly deal with their assumed roles towards us and especially while Jesus was on earth.solid analysis wrote: »
No, the Father and Son are two different beings. They are still both ? , as far as authority goes even though the Father has more authority.So are you saying Jesus and Yahweh are the SAME entity? You would have to say that because throughout the Old Testament they did not recognize or teach of two entities being ? .
1 Chronicles 17:20
O LORD, there is none like thee, neither is there any ? beside thee, according to all that we have heard with our ears.
1 Samuel 2:2
There is none holy as the LORD: for there is none beside thee: neither is there any rock like our ? .
.
dude the Old Testament does not recognize two different beings as ? ..
This is Yahweh speaking in the Old Testament.
Isaiah 43:11 I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour.
Isaiah 44:8 Do not tremble, do not be afraid. Did I not proclaim this and foretell it long ago? You are my witnesses. Is there any ? besides me? No, there is no other Rock; I know not one."
Isaiah 45:5 I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no ? beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:
That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the LORD, and there is none else.
^^ Now if Yahweh is speaking in those scriptures and he has a son named Jesus as you claim then why is he not recogizing him as a ? and a savior?
If Yahweh who you call Father is saying there is no ? nor savior with him then why do you not understand this? What would be the point of constantly saying no savior is beside me if you still saying there are 2 gods who are a Father and Son?
"For unto us a Child is born, unto us a Son is given; and the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty ? , Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace" (Isaiah 9:6).
This verse is about Jesus, but notice towards the end. What does Jesus get called toward the end of the verse?
As it is written, Jesus is regarded as the Word. And through the Word, "All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made" (John 1:3). So since Jesus is mankind's Creator, guess what that makes Him? He is the Father of us all. UH OH !
Yea i know some of yall don't wanna hear that
anything but the truth
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It's not a question of whether Law still stands or not, it's a question of who's law or which law. Yes all law comes from ? . That doesn't mean certain aspects of ? law won't change, which they did.Jesus came to fulfill but not to abolish ANY of gods laws.
Jesus showed he could perfect them.
Jesus only took away the consequences of not following the law; sacrifices/stoning.
Law still stands.
Christ law supercede the previous one in place - "Then said he, See, I come to do your will, O ? . He takes away the first, that he may establish the second." (Hebrews 10:9)
It says right there it was ? WILL for Christ to establish the second rule for mankind. Does that mean Christ destroyed the old law? ? said BOTH, that He didn't come to destroy the (old) law AND also that He meant for Christ to establish the (new) second. How can that be? There's some harmonizing that need to be done there. You got the game bent as far as the reason WHY Christ said He came not to destroy the law but to bring it to it's completion.
Also, that Law still exists is self-evident and an obvious thing to point out. Though pointing out that Law still exists doesn't show where a person gets the authority to bind OT law onto others where the NT law doesn't bind it.
Oh, and all conspiracy theories are still lies.
